Pass NCLEX NCLEX-RN Actual Free Exam Q&As Updated Dump Apr 26, 2024
Latest NCLEX-RN Actual Free Exam Updated 865 Questions
Preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam is a significant undertaking, and many nursing graduates spend months studying and preparing for the exam. There are many resources available to help nursing graduates prepare for the exam, including review books, study guides, and online practice exams. Many nursing programs also offer NCLEX-RN preparation courses to help their students prepare for the exam.
NCLEX-RN exam is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN), and its content is based on the knowledge and skills necessary for the entry-level practice of registered nursing. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to ensure that nurses are prepared to provide safe and effective care to patients in a variety of healthcare settings. Passing the NCLEX-RN exam is a requirement for licensure as a registered nurse in the US, and it is critical for aspiring nurses to prepare thoroughly for the exam to achieve success.
NEW QUESTION # 88
A 78-year-old female client has a total hip arthroplasty. Her nurse should know that which of the following is contraindicated?
- A. Place a trochanter roll along the upper thigh of the affected leg.
- B. Encourage exercises in the unaffected extremities.
- C. Encourage her to cross and uncross her legs.
- D. Check neurological and circulatory status of the affected leg hourly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Exercising the unaffected extremities will prevent contractures and emboli. (B) Crossing and uncrossing the affected leg after surgery can dislocate the joint. (C) Neurological and circulatory status of the affected leg has been compromised by surgery. Hourly checks are needed to monitor the status of the leg. (D) A trochanter roll will prevent the upper thigh from rolling outward, increasing the chances of dislocation.
NEW QUESTION # 89
A child is admitted to the emergency room with her mother. Her mother states that she has been exposed to chickenpox. During the assessment, the nurse would note a characteristic rash:
- A. That first appears on the neck and spreads downward
- B. That appears especially on the cheeks, which gives a "slapped-cheek" appearance
- C. That is covered with vesicular scabs all in the macular stage
- D. That appears profusely on the trunk and sparsely on the extremities
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A)
A rash with vesicular scabs in all stages (macule, papule, vesicle, and crusts). (B) A rash that appears profusely on the trunk and sparsely on the extremities. (C) A rash that first appears on the neck and spreads downward is characteristic of rubeola and rubella.
(D)
A rash, especially on the cheeks, that gives a "slapped-cheek" appearance is characteristic of roseola.
NEW QUESTION # 90
A 26-year-old client is admitted to the labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum unit. The nurse completes her assessment and determines the client is in the first stage of labor. The nurse should instruct her:
- A. To push before becoming fully dilated
- B. To hold her breath during contractions
- C. Not to push with her contractions
- D. To be flat on her back
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) This nursing action may cause hyperventilation. (B) This nursing action could cause inferior vena cava syndrome. (C) The client is allowed to push only after complete dilation during the second stage of labor. The nurse needs to know the stages of labor. (D) If the client pushes before dilation, it could cause cervical edema and/or edema to the fetal scalp; both of these could contribute to increased risk of complications.
NEW QUESTION # 91
The most important goal in the care plan for a child who was hospitalized with an accidental overdose would be to:
- A. Instruct parents in use of ipecac
- B. Determine child's activity pattern
- C. Teach parents appropriate safety precautions
- D. Reduce mother's sense of guilt
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation
Explanation:
(A) This goal is not the most important. (B) There is always some guilt when an accident occurs; however, the priority is to be sure future accidents are prevented. (C) Ipecac is not used for caustic alkali and acid ingestions. (D) Determining the parent's knowledge about safety hazards and teaching appropriate preventive measures are likely to prevent recurrence of accidents.
NEW QUESTION # 92
A client is pregnant for the fourth time and has had three normal vaginal deliveries. She is in active labor and fully dilated. Suddenly she calls, "Nurse, the baby is coming." As the nurse responds to her call, which one of the following observations should the nurse make first?
- A. Inspect the perineum.
- B. Time the contractions.
- C. Prepare a sterile area for delivery.
- D. Auscultate for fetal heart rate (FHR).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) The nurse must assess the labor status to determine if birth is imminent. The nurse may note perineal bulging, crowning, or birth of the head to ascertain labor status. (B) Assessing uterine contractions is one intervention to ascertain labor status. Based on the client's cry, it is not the intervention of choice. (C) If delivery of the infant is imminent, preparing a clean or sterile area for delivery is appropriate, but labor status must be established, whether delivery is imminent, by perineal assessment. (D) Assessing FHR is one intervention to ascertain fetal well-being. Based on the client's cry, this is not the intervention of choice.
NEW QUESTION # 93
The nurse is assessing breath sounds in a bronchovesicular client. She should expect that:
- A. Inspiration and expiration are equal
- B. Breath sounds are high pitched
- C. Inspiration is longer than expiration
- D. Breath sounds are slightly muffled
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Inspiration is normally longer in vesicular areas. (B) Highpitched sounds are normal in bronchial area. (C) Muffled sounds are considered abnormal. (D) Inspiration and expiration are equal normally in this area, and sounds are medium pitched.
NEW QUESTION # 94
A psychiatric client has been stabilized and is to be discharged. The nurse will recognize client insight and behavioral change by which of the following client statements?
- A. "If I have any side effects from my medicines, I will take an extra dose of Cogentin."
- B. "As soon as I leave here, I'm throwing away my medicines. I never thought I needed them anyway."
- C. "When I get home, I will need to take my medicines and call my therapist if I have any side effects or begin to hear voices."
- D. "When I get home, I should be able to taper myself off the Haldol because the voices are gone now."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) The client verbalizes that he is responsible for compliance and keeping the treatment team member informed of progress. This behavior puts him at the lowest risk for relapse. (B) Noncompliance is a major cause of relapse. This statement reflects lack of responsibility for his own health maintenance. (C) This statement reflects lack of insight into the importance of compliance. (D) This statement reflects no insight into his illness or his responsibility in health maintenance.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of the following nursing care goals has the highest priority for a child with epiglottitis?
- A. Be afebrile throughout her hospital stay.
- B. Participate in play activities 4 hr/day.
- C. Sleep or lie quietly 10 hr/day.
- D. Consume foods from all four food groups.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Of these four goals, maintenance of a calm, quiet atmosphere to reduce anxiety and to allow for rest is the most important. (B) Although nutrition is important, the child needs fluids to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance more than solid foods. In addition, the child may not be able to swallow solid foods owing to epiglottic swelling. (C) This goal is unrealistic because fever is a common symptom of the infection associated with epiglottitis. (D) If overexerted, the child will need more O2 and energy than available, and these requirements may exacerbate the condition.
NEW QUESTION # 96
The 4th of July holiday comes while a client is in the hospital being treated for schizophrenia. She is taking chlorpromazine and has improved to the point of being allowed to go with a group to the park for a picnic.
The side effect of chlorpromazine that the nurse needs to keep in mind during this outing is:
- A. Dryness of the mouth
- B. Photosensitivity
- C. Excessive appetite
- D. Hypotension
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) A decrease in blood pressure sometimes occurs with chlorpromazine. It would not be a factor influenced by a picnic in the park. (B) Protection from the sun is important in clients taking phenothiazines because they burn easily and severely. (C) An appetite increase sometimes occurs with chlorpromazine. It would not be affected by a picnic. (D) Dryness of the mouth may occur at any time and is not affected by the picnic outing.
NEW QUESTION # 97
A 47-year-old client comes to the emergency department complaining of moderate flank, abdominal, and testicular pain with nausea of 4 hours' duration. After physical examination and obtaining the client's history, the physician suspects urethral obstruction by calculi. The nurse realizes that the physician will order which one of the following diagnostic studies to best confirm the diagnosis?
- A. Intravenous pyelogram with excretory urogram
- B. Ureterolithotomy
- C. Kidneys, ureter, bladder, x-ray of abdomen
- D. Cystoscopy
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure that uses an instrument (a cystoscope) to visualize the internal bladder and ureter structures and to capture and remove an obstructing stone. (B) Kidney, ureter, bladder x-ray is used to outline gross structural changes in the kidneys, ureter, and bladder and will determine the general location of a stone. (C) An intravenous pyelogram with excretory urogram is used to visualize the kidneys, kidney pelvis, ureters, and bladder. This procedure is used specifically to determine whether urethral obstruction is partial or complete; it shows the exact location of the stone and dilation of the ureter above the stone. (D) Ureterolithotomy is a surgical procedure in which the ureter is incised and the stone is manually removed because the stone is unable to pass through the ureter independently.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Diabetes mellitus is a disorder that affects 3.1 out of every 1000 children younger than 20 years old. It is characterized by an absence of, or marked decrease in, circulating insulin. When teaching a newly diagnosed diabetes client, the nurse includes information on the functions of insulin:
- A. Glycogenolysis and catabolism
- B. Glycogenolysis and facilitation of glucose use for energy
- C. Catabolism and hyperglycemia
- D. Transport of glucose into body cells and storage of glycogen in the liver
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Lack of insulin causes glycogenolysis, catabolism, and hyperglycemia. (B) Insulin promotes the conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage and regulates the rate at which carbohydrates are used by cells for energy. (C) Insulin is anabolic in nature. (D) Glucose stimulates protein synthesis within the tissue and inhibits the breakdown of protein into amino acids.
NEW QUESTION # 99
A 30-year-old client has a history of several recent traumatic experiences. She presents at the physician's office with a complaint of blindness. Physical exam and diagnostic testing reveal no organic cause. The nurse recognizes this as:
- A. Illusion
- B. Delusion
- C. Hallucination
- D. Conversion
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The client's blindness is real. Delusion is a false belief. (B) Illusion is the misrepresentation of a real, external sensory experience. (C) Hallucination is a false sensory perception involving any of the senses. (D) Conversion is the expression of intrapsychic conflict through sensory or motor manifestations.
NEW QUESTION # 100
A child sustains a supracondylar fracture of the femur. When assessing for vascular injury, the nurse should be alert for the signs of ischemia, which include:
- A. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis
- B. Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhage
- C. Increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminase
- D. Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhage may occur due to injury but are not classic signs of ischemia. (B) An increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminase is related to the disruption of muscle integrity. (C) Classic signs of ischemia related to vascular injury secondary to long bone fractures include the five "P's": pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis. (D) Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus are common clinical manifestations of a fracture but not ischemia.
NEW QUESTION # 101
A pregnant client experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes. The first nursing action is to:
- A. Transfer to delivery suite
- B. Assess the client's respirations
- C. Auscultate fetal heart rate
- D. Notify the physician
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Immediately following membrane rupture, the fetus is at risk for complications, not necessarily the mother. (B) The physician is notified after the nurse completes an assessment of the mother's and fetus's conditions. (C) Rupture of membranes facilitates fetal descent. A potential complication is cord prolapse, which is assessed by auscultating fetal heart rate. (D) Rupture of membranes does not necessarily indicate readiness to deliver.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A 10-year-old client with a pin in the right femur is immobilized in traction. He is exhibiting behavioral changes including restlessness, difficulty with problem solving, inability to concentrate on activities, and monotony. Which of the following nursing implementations would be most effective in helping him cope with immobility?
- A. Providing him with books, challenging puzzles, and games as diversionary activities
- B. Stimulating rest and relaxation by gentle rubbing with lotion and changing the client's position frequently
- C. Having a volunteer come in to sit with the client and to read him stories
- D. Allowing him to do as much for himself as he is able, including learning to do pin-site care under supervision
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) These activities could be frustrating for the client if he is having difficulty with problem solving and concentration. (B) Selfcare is usually well received by the child, and it is one of the most useful interventions to help the child cope with immobility. (C) This may be helpful to the client if he has no visitors, but it does little to help him develop coping skills. (D) This will helpto prevent skin irritation or breakdown related to immobility but will not help to prevent behavioral changes related to immobility.
NEW QUESTION # 103
A 52-year-old client is scheduled for a small-bowel resection in the morning. In conjunction with other preoperative preparation, the nurse is teaching her diaphragmatic breathing exercises. She will teach the client to:
- A. Inhale as deeply as possible and then immediately exhale as deeply as possible at a rate of approximately 20-24 times/min
- B. Inhale slowly and deeply through the nose until the lungs are fully expanded, hold the breath a couple of seconds, and then exhale slowly through the mouth. Repeat 2-3 more times to complete the series every
1-2 hours while awake - C. Purse the lips and take quick, short breaths approximately 18-20 times/min
- D. Take a large gulp of air into the mouth, hold it for 10-15 seconds, and then expel it through the nose.
Repeat 4-5 times to complete the series
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This is the correct method of teaching diaphragmatic breathing, which allows full lung expansion to increase oxygenation, prevent atelectasis, and move secretions up and out of the lungs to decrease risk of pneumonia. (B) Quick, short breaths do not allow for full lung expansion and movement of secretions up and out of the lungs. Quick, short breaths may lead to O2 depletion, hyperventilation, and hypoxia. (C) Expelling breaths through the nose does not allow for full lung expansion and the use of diaphragmatic muscles to assist in moving secretions up and out of the lungs. (D) Inhaling and exhaling at a rate of 20-24 times/min does not allow time for full lung expansion to increase oxygenation. This would most likely lead to O2 depletion and hypoxia.
NEW QUESTION # 104
A 24-year-old woman who is gravida 1 reports, "I can't take iron pills because they make me sick." She continues, "My bowels aren't moving either." In counseling her based on these complaints, the nurse's most appropriate response would be, "It would be beneficial for you to eat . . .
- A. green leafy vegetables."
- B. prunes."
- C. eggs."
- D. red meat."
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Prunes provide fiber to decrease constipation and are an excellent source of dietary iron, as the prenatal client is not taking her supplemental iron and iron-deficiency anemia is common during pregnancy. (B) Green leafy vegetables provide a source of fiber and iron; however, prunes are a better source of both. (C) Red meat is a good iron source but will not address the constipation problem. (D) Eggs are a good iron source but do not address the constipation problem.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Early in her ninth month of pregnancy, a client has been diagnosed as having mild preeclampsia. In counseling her about her diet, the nurse must emphasize the importance of:
- A. Decreasing her sodium intake
- B. Increasing her carbohydrate intake
- C. Eating a moderate to high-protein diet
- D. Decreasing her fluids
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Women with pregnancy-induced hypertension have a reduced plasma volume secondary to venous vessel constriction, not hypovolemia; therefore, sodium restriction is not recommended. It is suggested that these women avoid extremely salty foods. (B) Drinking six to eight glasses of water per day facilitates optimal fluid volume and renal perfusion, but it will not decrease the venous vessel constriction of pregnancy-induced hypertension. (C) Carbohydrate needs increase during pregnancy, specifically during the second and third trimesters, but they have not been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension. (D) Loss of urinary protein (proteinuria) is associated with increased permeability of the large protein molecules with pregnancy-induced hypertension.Additional dietary protein also helps increase the plasma colloidal osmotic pressure. Diets deficient in protein have been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension.
NEW QUESTION # 106
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NCLEX-RN (National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses) is a standardized exam that assesses the competency of nursing graduates for entry-level nursing practice. NCLEX-RN exam is developed and administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and it is required for all nurses who want to practice in the United States and Canada. The NCLEX-RN exam is designed to test nursing knowledge, skills, and abilities required for safe and effective nursing practice. Passing the NCLEX-RN exam is a requirement for obtaining a nursing license and becoming a registered nurse.
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