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APICS CPIM-8.0 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
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| Topic 1 |
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| Topic 2 |
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| Topic 3 |
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NEW QUESTION # 15
A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?
- A. Something one knows
- B. Something one is
- C. Something one does
- D. Something one has
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 16
Small, independent demands for components and subassemblies typically arise from which of the following sources?
- A. Scrap allowance
- B. Warehouse orders
- C. Repair and service requirements
- D. Original equipment manufacturers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Independent demand for components and subassemblies is not tied to the demand of a higher-level item.
These typically come from repair, maintenance, and service activities, where components are needed on their own rather than as part of a finished product.
"Independent demand... includes service/replacement parts and maintenance repair operating supplies."
- CPIM MRP Module C1-5
NEW QUESTION # 17
An support technician is contacted by an imposter claiming to be a supervisor and is asked specifically to perform a task that violates the organization's security policies. What type of attack is this?
- A. Piggybacking
- B. Spear phishing
- C. Spoofing
- D. Insider threat
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?
- A. Facial recognition
- B. Retina
- C. Iris
- D. Hand geometry
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 19
A low-cost provider strategy works best when which of the following conditions are met?
- A. There are few industry newcomers.
- B. Buyers are more price sensitive.
- C. Price competition among rivals is similar.
- D. There are many ways to achieve product differentiation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A low-cost provider strategy is a business strategy where a company aims to become the most cost-efficient player in its industry, often by producing goods or providing services at a lower cost than its competitors. The overall goal is to increase market share or achieve higher profitability. The low-cost leader in an industry often sets the price that other companies have to match or beat to stay competitive12.
A low-cost provider strategy works best when buyers are more price sensitive, meaning they are more likely to switch to cheaper alternatives if the price of a product or service increases. This condition creates a strong demand for low-priced products or services, and gives the low-cost leader a competitive advantage over rivals who have higher costs and prices. Buyers are more price sensitive when34:
*The product or service is standardized or undifferentiated, and there are few switching costs.
*The product or service represents a significant portion of the buyer's budget or income.
*The product or service has low quality, performance, or image attributes that limit the buyer's satisfaction or loyalty.
*The product or service is not crucial to the buyer's well-being or enjoyment.
The other options are not correct because:
*A. Price competition among rivals is similar. This condition does not favor a low-cost provider strategy, because it implies that the industry is already highly competitive and there is little room for differentiation. A low-cost leader would have to lower its prices even further to gain an edge over rivals, which could erode its profitability and sustainability.
*C. There are many ways to achieve product differentiation. This condition does not favor a low-cost provider strategy, because it implies that the industry is diverse and dynamic, and there are many opportunities for innovation and value creation. A low-cost leader would have to invest more in research and development, marketing, and customer service to keep up with the changing customer preferences and expectations, which could increase its costs and reduce its efficiency.
*D. There are few industry newcomers. This condition does not favor a low-cost provider strategy, because it implies that the industry is mature and stable, and there are few threats from new entrants. A low-cost leader would have to rely on its existing customer base and market share, which could limit its growth potential and expose it to the risk of obsolescence.
References := 1 Low-cost leadership strategy: Explained with examples2 2 Low-Cost Producer: Definition, Strategies, Examples - Investopedia4 3 Low Cost Strategy - Definition, Factors & Example - MBA Skool5 4 Generating Advantage - Strategic Management - Open Educational Resources1
NEW QUESTION # 20
A startup organization has been growing rapidly and is planning to open a new office on another continent. Until infrastructure for the new office can be built, the organization is setting up remote access to the existing network. Which of the following is the MOST important secure implementation to complete during the expansion?
- A. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
- B. Cybersecurity training
- C. Password management software
- D. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 21
A web developer was recently asked to create an organization portal that allows users to retrieve contacts from a popular social media platform using Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS). Which of the following is BEST suited for authorizing the resource owner to the social media platform?
- A. OpenID Connect (OIDC)
- B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
- C. Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0
- D. Secure Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 22
Based on the above table, calculate the mean absolute deviation (MAD).
- A. 18.75
- B. 6.25
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
The mean absolute deviation (MAD) is a measure of variability that indicates the average distance between observations and their mean. MAD uses the original units of the data, which simplifies interpretation. Larger values signify that the data points spread out further from the average. Conversely, lower values correspond to data points bunching closer to it. The mean absolute deviation is also known as the mean deviation and average absolute deviation1.
The formula for the mean absolute deviation is the following:
MAD = (#|X - X#|) / N
Where:
*X = the value of a data point
*X# = the mean of the data points
*|X - X#| = the absolute deviation of a data point from the mean
*N = the number of data points
*# = the summation symbol
Based on the table, we can calculate the MAD as follows:
*X# = (80 + 50 + 50 + 75) / 4 = 63.75
*|X - X#| = |80 - 63.75|, |50 - 63.75|, |50 - 63.75|, |75 - 63.75| = 16.25, 13.75, 13.75, 11.25
*MAD = (16.25 + 13.75 + 13.75 + 11.25) / 4 = 6.25
Therefore, the correct answer is B.
References := 1 CPIM Part 2 Exam Content Manual, Domain 3: Plan and Manage Demand, Task 3.1:
Develop, validate, and review demand plans, p. 23.
NEW QUESTION # 23
The primary reason for tracing a component with scheduling problems to Its master production schedule (MPS) item is to:
- A. revise the rough-cut capacity plan.
- B. reschedule a related component on the shop floor.
- C. determine if a customer order will be impacted.
- D. check the accuracy of the bills for the MPS items.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary reason for tracing a component with scheduling problems to its master production schedule (MPS) item is to determine if a customer order will be impacted. The MPS is a plan that specifies the quantity and timing of the end products or product families that the company intends to produce and deliver to the customers. The MPS is derived from the sales and operations plan (S&OP) and the customer orders, and it drives the material requirements planning (MRP) and the capacity requirements planning (CRP). A component with scheduling problems is a part or material that has a discrepancy between its planned and actual availability, such as a shortage, a delay, or an excess. Tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item means identifying which end product or product family uses that component in its bill of materials (BOM), and how the component's availability affects the production and delivery of that end product or product family. This helps to determine if a customer order will be impacted by the component's scheduling problem, and to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact, such as rescheduling, expediting, substituting, or communicating with the customer. The other options are not correct, as they are not the primary reason for tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item, but rather possible actions or outcomes of the tracing process:
Revising the rough-cut capacity plan is a possible action that may result from tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item, if the component's availability affects the capacity of the critical resources that are needed to produce the MPS item. Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP) is a process of verifying the feasibility of the MPS in terms of the available capacity of critical resources, such as key machines or labor skills. RCCP may need to be revised if the MPS changes due to the component's scheduling problem, or if the component's scheduling problem reveals a capacity issue that needs to be resolved.
Rescheduling a related component on the shop floor is a possible action that may result from tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item, if the component's availability affects the production sequence or priority of other components that are used in the same MPS item. Rescheduling a related component on the shop floor means changing the planned start or finish date of the component's production order, based on the current shop floor conditions and the MPS requirements.
Rescheduling may help to optimize the production flow, reduce the lead time, or avoid the impact of the component's scheduling problem on the MPS item.
Checking the accuracy of the bills for the MPS items is a possible outcome that may result from tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item, if the component's availability reveals an error or inconsistency in the bills for the MPS items. Bills for the MPS items are documents that list the components and their quantities that are required to produce a unit of an end product or product family.
Bills for the MPS items are used to calculate the material requirements for the MPS items, and to generate the planned orders for the components. Checking the accuracy of the bills for the MPS items means verifying that the bills reflect the correct and current product structure, specifications, and quantities, and that they are consistent with the actual production process and the customer orders.
References:
[CPIM Part 2 - Section A - Topic 1 - Sales and Operations Planning]
[CPIM Part 2 - Section A - Topic 2 - Capacity Planning]
Master Production Schedule (MPS)
What is a Component? | Definition, Types, & Examples
Tracing a Component to Its MPS Item
Rough Cut Capacity Planning (RCCP)
[Rescheduling]
[Bill of Materials (BOM)]
NEW QUESTION # 24
A company confirms a customer order based on available capacity and inventory, even though the current production plan does not cover the entire order quantity. This situation is an example of what type of order fulfillment policy?
- A. Assemble-to-order (ATO)
- B. Configure-to-order (CTO)
- C. Available-to-promise (ATP)
- D. Capable-to-promise (CTP)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Capable-to-promise (CTP) is a type of order fulfillment policy that confirms a customer order based on the available capacity and inventory, as well as the current production plan and schedule. CTP calculates the earliest possible delivery date for a customer order, considering the existing demand and supply situation.
CTP allows a company to accept an order that exceeds the current available inventory, as long as it can produce the remaining quantity within the customer's requested delivery time. CTP helps to improve customer service, reduce inventory costs, and increase production efficiency12. References: 1 Capable to Promise (CTP) - Definition, Calculation, and Examples 3 2 CPIM Exam References - Association for Supply Chain Management
NEW QUESTION # 25
What General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) principle says that data should be collected lawfully and with the person's consent?
- A. Collection Categorization
- B. Limitation of use
- C. Collection limitation
- D. Legitimate data collection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 26
A semiconductor manufacturer is writing a physical asset handling policy. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the rationale for the policy?
- A. Access of system logs to authorized staff
- B. Accurate and prompt tagging of all business files
- C. Adoption of environmental controls in the server room
- D. Assurance of safe and clean handling of company property
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 27
An organization suffered a loss to an asset at a frequency that was different than the initially estimated Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). What is the appropriate course of action?
- A. Do nothing; the loss validates the ARO.
- B. Recalculate the value of the safeguard.
- C. Recalculate the cost of the countermeasure.
- D. DO nothing; the loss validates the exposure factor.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 28
The question below is based on the following standard and actual data of a production order
Which of the following statements about variances is true?
- A. The labor efficiency variance is favorable by S20
- B. The material price vanance for Component A is favorable by S10
- C. The labor pnce variance is unfavorable by S20
- D. The material usage variance for Component B is favorable by $36
Answer: A
Explanation:
The labor efficiency variance is the difference between the standard labor hours allowed for the actual output and the actual labor hours used, multiplied by the standard labor rate. In this case, the standard labor hours allowed for 100 pieces are 0.5 * 100 = 50 hours. The actual labor hours used are 48 hours. The standard labor rate is $10 per hour. Therefore, the labor efficiency variance = (50 - 48) * $10 = $20 favorable. This means that the actual labor hours used were less than the standard labor hours allowed, which indicates a higher labor efficiency12 References: 1: CPIM Part 2 - Section B - Module 2 - Session 2 - Variance Analysis 2: CPIM Part
2 - Section B - Module 2 - Session 3 - Variance Analysis Example
NEW QUESTION # 29
An organization undergoing acquisition merged IT departments and infrastructure. During server decommissioning, some servers still in use by customers were mistakenly removed, causing order processing failures. Which type of review would have BEST avoided this scenario?
- A. Disaster Recovery (DR)
- B. Change management
- C. Business Continuity (BC)
- D. Business impact assessment
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 30
An attacker wants to decrypt a message and has no knowledge of what may have been in the original message. The attacker chooses to use an attack that will exhaust the keyspace in order to decrypt the message. What type of cryptanalytic attack is the attacker using?
- A. Chosen ciphertext
- B. Known plaintext
- C. Brute force
- D. Ciphertext only
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 31
What is most likely to be the effect of developing a current-state value stream map?
- A. Elimination of waste
- B. Increased component standardization
- C. Identification of non-value-added activities
- D. Reduction in manufacturing lead time
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Identification of non-value-added activities .
A current-state value stream map documents how the process currently works. Its most immediate effect is to make visible the activities, queues, delays, movements, inspections, and other steps that do not add value from the customer's perspective. Actual reduction in lead time or elimination of waste usually happens later, after future-state mapping and improvement actions are implemented.
Exact extract: "In JIT manufacturing waste is considered any non-value added process or activity. These activities include overtime scrap paperwork approvals wait times or any other process that doesn't add value from the customer's perspective." Therefore, the best answer is A , because the current-state map first helps identify non-value-added activities; it does not automatically eliminate them.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following statements best characterizes enterprise resources planning (ERP) systems?
- A. They provide real-time planning and scheduling, decision support, available-to-promise (ATP), and capable-to-promise (CTP) capabilities.
- B. They are expensive but easy to implement.
- C. They track activity from customer order through payment.
- D. They are used for strategic reporting requirements.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems are software platforms that help organizations manage and integrate the essential parts of their businesses, such as finance, supply chain, operations, human resources, and more. ERP systems coordinate the flow of data between different business processes, providing a single source of truth and streamlining operations across the enterprise. ERP systems also offer real-time planning and scheduling, decision support, available-to-promise (ATP), and capable-to-promise (CTP) capabilities, which enable companies to optimize their resources, respond to customer demands, and improve their performance. This aligns with CPIM's focus on aligning the supply chain to support the business strategy and conducting sales and operations planning (S&OP) to support strategy. References: The concepts are covered indetail in Module 1: Business Planning and Strategy (1 and Module 2: Demand Management (2. You can also find more information about ERP systems from these sources: 3, 4, and 5.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using federated identity?
- A. A compromised credential provides access to all the user's applications
- B. The application has access to the user's credentials
- C. Applications may need complex modifications to implement
- D. The administrative burden is increased
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is the MOST effective practice for tracking organizational assets when removed from the premises?
- A. Removal is authorized directly by executive management.
- B. Removal is authorized using a formal sign-out process.
- C. Removal is authorized if the asset has been disposed of.
- D. Removal is authorized when remote use is required for business.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 35
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